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2ab8b27b-1646-4886-8378-f2f11f84a79e
Which acid does not show coagulation necrosis on contact?
HC1
H,SO4
HF
HNO3
2c
single
Ans: C. HF(Ref Reddy 34/e p493, 33/e p530; Principles of Clinical Toxicology 3/e p220; Forensic Pathology 3/ep241, 110).HF does not show coagulation necrosis on contact.Hydrofluoric acid causes liquefaction necrosis.
Forensic Medicine
null
b8e55476-5037-418e-afe3-2d7ca5174a31
The oral findings in erythroblastosis fetal's include
Dentinal dysplasia
Hypoplastic teeth
Pigmented teeth
All of the above
2c
multi
null
Pathology
null
fcbb415d-5122-4a17-8042-196d3e5add29
A 14 year old boy has delayed eruption of the second molar. Radiography shows a dentigerous cyst surrounding the crown of the tooth. The treatment of choice is:
Extraction of the molar
Aspiration of the cyst
Observe
Expose the crown and keep it exposed
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
46e4c25f-f518-43a9-bad7-481cb1a16416
Before an arbitrary face bow transfer record, the dentist must determine:
Physiologic rest position
Inclination of each condyle
Axial centre of rotation of condyle
Kinematic axis of movement of condyle
2c
single
null
Dental
null
a9b0fecd-41ee-4e52-87a9-12e7048e6615
Asseion: In a patient admitted to hospital for community acquired pneumonia, combination therapy of beta lactams and azithromycin is given.Reason : This combination covers gram positive organisms and anaerobes.
Both reason and asseion are true
Asseion is true but reason is false.
Asseion is true but reason is paially true for asseion
Both asseion & reason are not true.
1b
multi
Ans. B. Asseion is true but reason is false.* Combination is given to cover atypical bacteria.* The CDC and others recommend outpatient oral empirical antibiotics with a macrolide, doxycycline, or an oral betalactam (amoxicillin, cefuroxime , or amoxicillin/clavulanate ) or inpatient treatment with an intravenous betalactam (cefuroxime, ceftriaxone , cefotaxime ) or a combination of ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) with a macrolide
Pharmacology
null
46c8e8cf-5930-486f-ad11-99b9339c12ab
Reticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in all of the following except:
Thymus
Spleen
Bone marrow
Lymph node
0a
multi
Ans: A. ThymusReticular fibers of collagen tissues are present in Spleen, Bone marrow & Lymph node but not in thymus.Reticulin:Type of fiber in connective tissue.Composed of type III collagen.Secreted by reticular cells.Reticular fibers crosslink to form a fine meshwork.Acts as a suppoing mesh in soft tissues such as liver, bone marrow & tissues and organs of lymphatic system.
Anatomy
null
9ba1d3cf-434c-4f68-ab5f-0ccbe263e3a5
In universal pro-taper retreatment file end cutting tip is seen in?
D-1
D-2
D-3
None of the above
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
5b612728-c228-4423-8fd8-fde0ff1d3f68
Criteria for infant at risk?
Working mothers
Have not taken 100 days folic acid
Preclampsia is pregnancy
Malpresentation during bih
2c
single
Infant safe Infant risk Working mothers Have not taken 100 days folic acid Malpresentation during bih Preclampsia in pregnancy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
AIIMS 2019
6380bf46-988e-4ed8-8add-f57fa7bb61fc
Most common cyst associated with adjoining vital teeth?
Dentigerous cyst
Globulomaxillary cyst
Periapical cyst
Lateral periodontal cyst
0a
single
null
Pathology
null
643e9f4a-030c-45b2-867a-2393445afea3
Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria:March 2009
Gentamycin
Ciprofloxacin
Tetracycline
Vancomycin
3d
multi
Ans. D: VancomycinVancomycins bind to the peptides of the peptidoglycan monomers and block both the formation of gycosidic bonds between the sugars by the transgycosidase enzymes and the formation of the peptide cross-links by the transpeptidase enzymes. This results in a weak cell wall and osmotic lysis of the bacterium.The fluoroquinolones (norfloxacin, lomefloxacin, fleroxacin, ciprofloxacin, enoxacin, trovafloxacin, gatifloxacin, etc.) work by inhibiting one or more of a group of enzymes called topoisomerase, enzymes needed for supercoiling, replication and separation of circular bacterial DNA.For example, DNA gyrase is a topoisomerase that catalyzes the negative supercoiling of the circular DNA found in bacteria. Topoisomerase IV, on the other hand, is involved in the relaxation of the supercoiled circular DNA, enabling the separation of the interlinked daughter chromosomes at the end of bacterial DNA replication.In gram-positive bacteria, the main target for fluoroquinolones is DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II), an enzyme responsible for supercoiling of bacterial DNA during DNA replication; in gram-negative bacteria, the primary target is topoisomerase IV, an enzyme responsible for relaxation of supercoiled circular DNA and separation of the inter-linked daughter chromosomes.The tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline, demeclocycline, minocycline, etc.) block bacterial translation by binding reversibly to the 30S subunit and distoing it in such a way that the anticodons of the charged tRNAs cannot align properly with the codons of the mRNA.The aminoglycosides (streptomycin, neomycin, netilmicin, tobramycin, gentamicin, amikacin, etc.) bind irreversibly to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes.
Pharmacology
null
cd0edc92-8fb3-4f97-b0ce-d74446009179
A person was advised by his ohopedic surgeon to get regular dressing of his wound done. But the patient did not give much care. During follow-up, patient was repeatedly told to get the dressing done timely but patient didn't do the dressing himself, saying that he was busy. Finally the wound enlarged and the underlying bone developed osteomyelitis. Which of the following statement is true regarding above-mentioned situation?
Doctor is guilty under "Last clear chance" doctrine
Doctor is not guilty under "Contributory negligence"
Doctor is punishable under avoidable negligence
Doctor is guilty as he prescribed wrong medicines
0a
multi
Ans: A. Doctor is guilty under "Last clear chance" doctrine(Ref Reddy 34/e p38, 33/e p40)Last Clear Chance Doctrine:Possibility of doctor saving the patient (plaintiff) by dressing wound properly the 2nd time, hence curing without osteomyelitis development.Hence, doctor is paly guilty for the outcome (osteomyelitis).Criteria included:Failure of doctor to prevent damage resulting from negligent act of patient, even after getting clear time, he cannot plead contributory negligence in civil cases.Elements of proof:Defendant- Doctor.Defendant recognized the danger & acquired a duty to avoid it.Defendant failed to avoid danger.Plaintiff - Patient.Plaintiff placed themselves in a situation of risk or danger through their own negligence.Plaintiff could not avoid the danger.Plaintiff was injured as a result of the defendant's failure.
Forensic Medicine
null
98035f50-53b3-47c8-b340-392237162fb2
Condensation reaction occurs in
Agar
Alginate
Polysulfide
ZOE
2c
single
null
Dental
null
065b4850-1738-4a30-9c3f-1fb89d9c0123
Maximum level of alpha fetoprotein is seen in:
Fetal serum
Placenta
Amniotic fluid
Maternal serum
0a
single
Alpha fetoprotein is the most abundant protein in the fetal serum throughout fetal development. It is transferred from fetus to amniotic fluid when fetus passes urine. The concentration of AFP in amniotic fluid is approximately 100 folds less than in fetal serum, peaks at 13-14 weeks and then decreases in the second trimester (by 10% per week). AFP reaches the maternal serum by diffusion across the amniotic membranes and via the placenta. The level of AFP in maternal serum is less than fetal serum as is suggested by: “Fetal serum contains AFP in a concentration 150 times that of maternal serum”. COGDT 10/e, p 185 “Ordinarily high level of fetoprotein are found in developing fetus and low levels exist in maternal serum and amniotic fluid”. Mannual of Laboratory and Diagnostic Test Fishback 7/e, p 995
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
713b94cf-fc1e-4c32-b28e-f187cf86562d
IOTN is not used for which malocclusion?
Open bite
CLP
Bimaxillary protrusion
Crowding
2c
single
Index of Orthognathic Functional Treatment Need  This index applies to those malocclusions that are not amenable to orthodontic treatment alone, due to skeletal deformity, and will ordinarily apply to those patients who will have completed facial growth prior to surgery (commonly 18 years of age and older) It relates only to the functional need for treatment and should be used in combination with appropriate psychological and other clinical indicators.
Dental
null
876a5607-e467-4745-b315-13812c405904
A 16 years old girl came for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. She was having hirsutism, irregular bleeding and infeility, diagnosed as PCOS. Which of the following drugs should not be given?
Spironolactone
Tamoxifen
OCPs
Clomiphene citrate
1b
single
Answer- B. TamoxifenMedical Treatment of PCOSEstrogen best given with progesterone (combined OCPs) with no androgenic propeiesHirsutism is treated with cyproterone acetate or spironolactone.Infeility is treated with Clomiphene, 80% ovulate and 40% conceive.In Clomiphene failed group, ovulation can be induced with FSH or GnRH analogues.Metformin treats the root cause of PCOS, rectifies endocrine and metabolic functions and improves feility and isdrug of choice.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
bd2d1f59-a803-4311-b0b5-65dff935f85c
Culture media of candida is:
Methylene blue dextrose agar
Saboraud's medium
Pingolevin
All of the above
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
be168ef1-fee0-4f80-9c60-6259e78b56b9
Migratory motor complexes in the gut reappear after intervals of:
60 minutes
90 minutes
120 minutes
150 minutes
1b
single
Ans: B. 90 minutes(Ref Ganong 25/e p496, 24/e p498)Migrating motor complexes in the gut reappear after intervals of 90 minutes.MMCs:Initiated by motilin.Circulating motilin increases at intervals of 100 min in interdigestive state.Coordinated with contractile phases of MMC.Contractions migrate aborally at a rate of about 5 cm/ min.
Physiology
null
7405ebae-1cba-48c4-bf16-8dea393e97ee
Which of the following movements are performed by a non — working condyle?
Straightward
Down wards forwards and lateral
Down wards forwards and medial
Down wards Back wards and medial
2c
single
null
Dental
null
ad724a47-320a-4b79-81d9-8bea8da0f4a5
Without supervision, allowed to give dentures
Denturist
Hygienist
School Dental nurse
Dental therapist
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
16759fbf-ac94-4ec3-9fde-0702eee3eac5
Which of the following is an example of placebo?
Herbal medication with no known effect
Physiotherapy
Sham surgery
Cognitive behavioral therapy
2c
single
* In sham surgery, surgery is done without any purpose; we just open the abdomen in one person and close it, in other person appendix is removed; this is done to see whether appendectomy has any advantage.* Placebos (fake drug/dummy medicine) are used in clinical trials to compare the two treatments; it can't produce any effect. * Herbal medication can produce some effects.* Physiotherapy can also produce effects.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2017
c54d9bde-0f32-4f38-a236-875013438ba9
Increased VDO results in
Strained facial appearance
Trauma to underlying tissues
Clicking of teeth
All of the above
3d
multi
null
Dental
null
1b9ecfa4-d168-458c-891c-e3a30b5f6e77
Indirect Retainer is placed:
Near direct retainer
As far as possible from fulcrum line
Near fulcrum line
Near edentulous area
1b
single
null
Dental
null
67a5354d-9a42-436a-be77-eacc7d10cd7c
Enamel hatchet is differentiated from chisel by all except:
Curved in one plane only
Blade is larger
Blade is perpendicular to the long axis of handle
Blade is heavier
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
a31714d8-1531-4865-8d0d-f2430b8d68c1
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor:
M protein
Pyrogenic exotoxin
Streptolysin 0
Carbohydrate cell wall
1b
multi
null
Microbiology
null
00b083b3-b213-4b45-bbc4-301c4156576c
Which of the following is not true about latent phase of labour?
According to ACOG it stas after 3-4 cm cervical dilatation but they are planning to increase it to 5 cm
Begins at the end of active phase and is a pa of 1st stage of labour
Patient may present with false labour due to mild cramps
Stas with contractions of the uterus
2c
multi
Answer- C. Patient may present with false labour due to mild crampsIt stas at the point at which mother perceives true labour pains and ends when cervix is 3cm dilated and 1.5 cm/hour for parous cervix.Duration in nulliparous is 6-8 hours and 5.3 hours in multiparous (average 4-6 hours).Mainly concerned with cervical effacement
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
167c89ae-1898-497f-87c4-805a65c7a9bd
Supporting cusps occlude in:
Central fossa
Marginal ridges.
Embrassures.
Both AB
3d
multi
null
Dental
null
fde19aa5-8a95-46c2-bbf9-5421b8d83b41
The depth of clinical gingival sulcus is the distance between the gingival margin to the
Cementoenamel Junction
Alveolar crest
Apical extension of junctional epithelium
Apical penetration of the probe
3d
single
null
Dental
null
f1f7b5b5-1446-4c3b-b863-6f933689cb95
Which of the following increases callus formation:
Rigid immobilization
Movement at fracture site
Compression plating
Intraosseous nailing
1b
multi
Ans: B. Movement at fracture site (Ref Apley 9/e p689)Micro movements at fracture site encourages vascular proliferation -Increases callus formation.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4329bad6-ab20-42bc-8cb5-b89601d7bdee
Gingival massage increases blood supply in:
Epidermis
Basal layer
Lamina propria
All of the above
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
0b98d76f-ea90-4e4e-9af0-881362b7bae3
Large anterior fontanelles, open sutures, slanting eyes, decreased sexual development, macroglossia and enamel hypoplasia are seen in:
Craniofacial dysostosis
Down's syndrome
Treacher Collins syndrome
Marfan's syndrome
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
b3163789-82b3-4054-aabe-3a2b90aa7a98
Which marker shows holocrine gland?
A
B
C
D
0a
single
Marker (A) shows the Holocrine gland i.e, Sebaceous gland related with hair follicle sending sebum to skin surface. Marker (C) - Hair follicle Marker (D) - Sub cutaneous fat (Adipocytes) - empty looking cells with fat & peripheral nucleus - Usually skin & sebaceous glands have - stratified squamous epithelium
Anatomy
AIIMS 2017
2ffd16e8-5b32-40c9-9aa6-1cab59d5728e
The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular process, the Lateral nasal process & maxillary process is:
Naso-alveolar cyst
Globulomaxillary cyst
Naso palatine cyst
Mid palatine cyst
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
5ca66e2e-503b-4847-a729-c8be53fa9325
Increased Monocytic count is seen in Typhoid and which of the following conditions?
Parasitic infections
Sub-Acute Bacterial Endocarditis
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
None of the above
1b
multi
null
Medicine
null
7912bdab-3d26-40a1-91c3-9d52e760b930
. The prospectively evaluated, double-blinded, randomized clinical trail represents the 'gold-standard' for providing evidence for therapeutic decision making. This was first proposed by the father of evidence-based medicine:
Tolstoy
Sackett
Hippocrates
da Vinci
1b
single
Ans. b. Sackett"David Lawrence Sackett is a Canadian medical doctor and a pioneer in evidence-based medicine. He founded the first depament of clinical epidemiology in Canada at McMaster University, and the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine. He is well known for his textbooks Clinical Epidemiology and Evidence-Based Medicine." Father of modern medicineHippocratesQFather of Indian medicineCharakaQFather of modern surgeryAmbroise PareQFather of Indian surgeryShushrutaQFather of epidemiologyJohn SnowQFather of bacteriologyLouis PasteuQFather of modern anatomyVesaliusaQFather of physiologyClaude BernardQFather of antisepsisJoseph ListerQ
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1b7a2a1c-6321-4541-b649-7db8418c38da
Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa
Cefoperazone
Cefaclor
Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
df493519-1b08-442e-853c-edd9ca4f6f57
Acetone free methyl alcohol is present in Leishmann's stain for:
It fixes cells to the slide
It colors the red cells
It prevents the cells from sticking to the slide surface
It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cell
3d
single
Answer- D. It stops metabolic and enzymatic activity of the cellTt is a type ofAcidic dye stains the basic components of cell & basic dye stains the acidic components of cell.Leishman's stain contains eosin & methylene blue in acetone free methyl alcohol.Methyl alcohol acts as a fixative.Acetone if present, will destroy the cell membraneMethylene blue ("polychromed"), the basic dye and eosin, the acidic dye exists as thiazine eosinate, which dissociates into the component dyes, when diluted with distilled water.Methyl blue stains the nucleus & basophilic granules of WBC, whereas eosin stains the eosinophilic granules.It is generally used to differentiate & identily leucocytes, malaria parasites & trypanosomas
Pathology
null
d239a8a4-bc54-453e-805f-068d00381a1b
All of the following carry proprioception from head and neck except:
Facial nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Cranial accessory nerve
3d
multi
null
Anatomy
null
f447d416-8b56-4a22-a6bc-9b3467fc4b1d
Suture technique is called as:
Simple loop suture.
Sling suture.
Figure eight suture.
Simple sling suture.
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
a45d9322-2e84-4b76-aa18-537bd856d604
All of the following are true about Ifosfamide except:
It is nitrogen mustard
Metabolised by CYP3A4 to form active metabolite
Chloracetaldehyde is active form
Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide
3d
multi
Ans. d. Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamideAt equivalent doses, the rate of chloroacetaldehyde generation with ifosfamide is 40 times greater than with cyclophosphamide. At equivalent doses, the rate of chloroacetaldehyde generation with ifosfamide is 40 times greater than with cyclophosphamide therefore it produces more platelet suppression, neurotoxicity and urothelial damage.IfosfamideIfosfamide is a synthetic analogue of cyclophosphamideIt is a nitrogen mustard alkylating agentMetabolism:Ifosfamide is a prodrug that requires metabolic activation by microsomal liver enzymes to produce biologically active compounds.Activation is mediated by cytochrome p450 --> CYP3A4 and deactivated by CYP3A-4 and CYP2B6The metabolic activation of Ifosfamide is an autoinducible process and besides producing active cytotoxic metabolites it also results in generation of some toxic metabolic byproducts that are responsible Side-Effects/Toxicity:Ifosfamide is a cyclophosphamide analogue, it has all the potential adverse effects Ifosfamide metabolite, rather than the parent drug is responsible for toxicity.Well known toxic metabolites of Ifosfamide: Acrolein and chloroacetaldehyde.Acrolein is responsible for Ifosfamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis.Chloroacetaldehyde is responsible for renal tubular damage and neurotoxicity.At equivalent doses, the rate of chloroacetaldehyde generation with ifosfamide is 40 timescyclophosphamide therefore it produces more platelet suppression, neurotoxicity and urothelial
Pharmacology
null
f6bd6944-8c47-4037-8871-10855371a4c2
Which film is used for caries detection? (or) Which film is used for caries detection in children?
D speed
E speed
B speed
F speed
3d
single
null
Radiology
null
97a54f46-0d5e-4979-820c-ab311c30f08a
During exercise in physiological limits what is the effect on end systolic volume?
ESV decreases
ESV increase
ESV remain unchanged
ESV first decrease and then increases
0a
single
During exercise, there is increased sympathetic discharge and venous return to hea. This causes increased stroke volume mainly due to increased myocardial contractility. Due to increased stroke volume, the ESV decreases. In the image given the stoke volume is indicated by the width of the loop and LV pressure by the height of the loop. Three major effects occurring during exercise are : Sympathetic nervous system activation in many tissues with stimulatory effects on circulation. Increase in aerial pressure Increase in cardiac output.
Physiology
AIIMS 2018
5ce754b8-b358-4270-9bd1-8828700a19b1
Which of the following blade angle is appropriate for scaling and root planing
A
B
C
D
1b
single
Blade angulation. (A) 0 degrees: correct angulation for blade insertion. (B) 45 to 90 degrees: correct angulation for scaling and root planing. (C) less than 45 degrees: incorrect angulation for scaling and root planing. (d) More than 90 degrees: incorrect angulation for scaling and root planing, but correct angulation for gingival curettage.
Dental
null
1b4a2a96-cd33-4ccd-bf13-3c208a07983a
A patient presents to the ER after a A with multiple rib injuries. He is conscious, speaking single words. RR = 40/min, BP= 90/40 mmHg. What is the next immediate step in management?
Intubate the patient
Urgent fluid infusion
Chest X ray
Needle inseion in 2nd ICS
3d
multi
Answer- D. Needle inseion in 2nd ICSThis is a case of tension pneumothorax. Although the new ATLS update is 5th intercostal space in mid maxillary line, but in this question we will go with a time tested method of needle in 2nd intercostal space.
Medicine
null
5a2f9e25-3acb-4830-9f18-009480595be1
Not a side effect of Escitalopram?
Nausea
Vivid dreams
Anorgasmia
Sialorrhoea
3d
single
Side effects of Escitalopram GI side effects: MC Vivid Dreams Sexual dysfunction on long term intake Sialorrhea is a side effect of clozapine
Psychiatry
AIIMS 2019
3a0e01d0-4230-4633-a7a9-624a0c32a486
Main mechanism of action of heparin Is to prevent:
Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
PTC to PTA
Factor VIIa inhibition
1b
single
null
Surgery
null
810e4333-a984-4b47-821a-d6dddd1615d7
All of following are recognized manifestation of acute Rheumatic fever except –a) Abdominal painb) Epistaxisc) Choread) Subcutaneous nodules
ac
a
ad
ab
3d
multi
Subcutaneous nodules and chorea are the major criteria. Epistaxis and abdominal pain are nonspecific and usually do not occur.
Pediatrics
null
1879dad4-5bba-48db-bc78-07c64447bf24
Frankfort - horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks?
Nasion and Sella
Porion and Sella
Porion and Nasion
Porion and Orbitale
3d
single
null
Dental
null
27a55dd4-2931-4c86-ba40-7f3b341c9b34
All are sensory to the palate except:
Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
3d
multi
null
Anatomy
null
593bd593-3060-493d-bb10-ff9e10e36f17
In Rh lso Immunisation, exchange transfusion is indicated if –
Cord blood hemoglobin is less than 10 g %
Cord bilirubin is more than 5 mg
History of previous sibling affected
All of these
3d
multi
Indications of Exchange transfusion Cord hemoglobin      _.10g/dL           o Bilirubin protein ratio >3.5        o Prematurity Cord bilirubin          >5mg/d             o Reticulocyte count > 15% Previous kernicterus or severe erythroblastosis in a sibling
Pediatrics
null
4eb2c660-2893-450f-957c-536b6a6f9b3d
Feed forward mechanism..
Feeling thirsty while walking in hot temperature
Shivering on exposure to cold temperature
Salivation on smelling food
Increase blood pressure during supine posture
2c
single
Feed forward mechanism Feedback mechanism Controller anticipates changes & takes a desired action. No time lag present Examples: - Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Increase ventilatory drive in exercise. Change occur in controlled variable & that change is feedback to controller & then the controller takes action Time lag is present. Type: Negative feed back - Kidney body fluid mechanism - Temperature regulation - Baroreceptor mechanism Positive feed back - Circulatory shock - Oxytocin in paurition - Platelet plug / clot formation - LH surge leading to ovulation - Bladder filling to micturition
Physiology
AIIMS 2019
a67293d8-42a6-4fe5-a2ac-ee22bc9ebaf9
Acid dissolution is most common in which part of rod
Periphery of head
Head region
Rod tails
equally
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
930d4945-04ef-4c32-9c9d-279e8226f852
A 46 years old male patient was given subarachnoid block with bupivacaine (heavy) by the anesthetist. After 10 minutes he was found to have a BP of 72/44 mm Hg and hea rate of 52/min. On checking the level of block it was found to be T6. What is the likely explanation for the bradvcardia?
Bezold-Jarisch reflex
Bainbridge reflex
Block of Cardio-accelerator fibers of synthetic origin
Reverse Bainbridge reflex
0a
single
Ans: A. Bezold-Jarisch reflex (Ref 8/e p1970, Miller 7/e p409)The Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves a variety of cardiovascular and neurological processes which cause hypopnea (excessively shallow breathing or an abnormally low respiratory rate) & bradycardia (abnormally low resting hea rate).Possible cause of profound bradycardia and circulatory collapse after spinal anesthesia.Cardioprotective reflex.Implicated in physiologic response to a range of cardiovascular conditions such as myocardial ischemia or infarction, thrombolysis, or revascularization and syncope.Natriuretic peptide receptors stimulated by endogenous ANP or BNP may modulate the Bezold-Jarisch reflex.Less pronounced in patients with cardiac hyperophy or atrial fibrillation
Anaesthesia
null
53d58d7a-d546-4b1a-88a7-fa7348ff08a5
All are secondary colonizers except
S. sanguis
P. intermedia
Fusobacteria
P. gingivalis
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
04d0e5cc-1355-4028-8d94-47046d188bd2
Interdental papilla protruding from the rubber dam, most common cause is
Inflammation of interdental papillae
Use of light weight rubber dam
Punch are placed too far
Punch are placed too close
3d
single
null
Dental
null
88082d18-5e7b-4c2a-81fa-b91139c7276d
Thickness of luting cement is:
20-40 μ
10-20 μ
60-80 μ
1-2 μ
0a
single
null
Dental
null
376472be-1031-446f-abbd-f35a14669d7f
8 year-old child had fractured his maxillary central incisor 10-months ago. The pulp shows no response. There is no periapical lesion in the radiograph. The treatment of choice is:
Ca(OH)2 pulp capping
Formocresol pulpotomy
Conventional root canal treatment
Complete debridement and apexification
3d
single
Apexification Definition “Apexification is defined as chemically induced root formation by calcium hydroxide or CMCP in nonvital immature, blunderbuss canals of young permanent teeth.” APEXIFICATION  It is a method of inducing apical closure by formation of mineralized tissue in the apical region of a nonvital permanent tooth with an incompletely formed root apex.  It is defined as a method to induce development of the root apex of an immature pulpless tooth by formation of osteocementum/bone-like tissue (Cohen).  Apexification is a method of inducing apical closure through the formation of mineralized tissue in the apical pulp region of a nonvital tooth with an incompletely formed root and an open apex (Morse et al. 1990).
Dental
null
70f851da-1d36-4d09-a9f0-f7afc63c07ff
Patient with severe acidosis is treated with
i.v. NaHCo3
Ringers lactate
Dextrose
None of the above
0a
multi
null
Surgery
null
ced0e6e7-048a-467e-aa7e-e10def9ebb5e
Which of the following is not used as a disinfectant?
1-2% Cetrimide
100% Alcohol
2% Lysol
5% Chloroxylene
1b
single
A 70% solution of alcohol takes more time in evaporation from the surface, increasing the contact time. Therefore, 70% isopropyl alcohol is suitable for disinfection.  100% isopropyl alcohol coagulates the protein instantly creating a protein layer that protects the remaining protein from further coagulation.
Microbiology
null
e0c3fa32-b170-46e4-a748-9965e38ca3a9
Electric resistance between oral mucosa and PDL is always constant that is:
4.5 K ohm
5.5 K ohm
6.5 K ohm
7.5 K ohm
2c
single
FIRST-GENERATION APEX LOCATORS (RESISTANCE APEX LOCATORS) They are also known as resistance apex locators that measure opposition to the flow of direct current, that is, resistance. It is based on the principle that resistance offered by periodontal ligament and oral mucous membrane is the same, that is, 6.5 K ohms. Initially, Sono-Explorer was imported from Japan by Amadent, (Port Jefferson, New York) but nowadays first generation apex locators are off the practice. Blood, pus, chelating agents, irrigants, and other materials used within the canal can give false readings.
Dental
null
da27e783-4c0b-4621-bc3d-938a109d8425
Use of lithium during pregnancy increases the risk of development of which of the following malformations in the baby?
Facial defects
Cardiac defects
Neural tube defects
Urogenital defects
1b
single
Lithium causes Ebstein's anomaly (malformation in tricuspid valve of hea) if given in pregnancy. Other side effects of lithium includes: Leucocytosis I Tremors (most common adverse effect) Hypothyroidism Increase Urine (polyuria) Mothers (avoided in pregnancy).
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2018
83190d93-147b-4abc-a5fc-500371388fd5
All of the following are signs of respiratory insufficiency except:
Hypoxia
Inability to speak
Strider during inspiration
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans: D. All of the above(Ref Bailey 27/e p929-925, 26/e p303: Sobiston 20/e p557: Harrison 19/e p1661, 1731, 1732).Respiratory Insufficiency:Inability of lungs to function properly & maintain normal processes of oxygen uptake & carbon dioxide removal.Sign & symptoms of respiratory insufficiency:Fatigue, shoness of breath, heavy breathing, rapid breathing, exercise intolerance, hypoxia, inability to speak & stridor during inspiration.
Surgery
null
c48cca4e-55ef-4a73-b07d-6ac3a3c5c1eb
A patient shows one or more of the following: advanced bone loss, grade II and III furcation involvements, tooth mobility, inaccessible areas, systemic/environmental factors represents:
Questionable prognosis
Poor prognosis
Fair prognosis
Hopeless prognosis
0a
single
Good prognosis: Control of etiologic factors and adequate periodontal support ensure the tooth will be easy to maintain by the patient and clinician. Fair prognosis: Approximately 25% attachment loss or grade I furcation invasion (location and depth allow proper maintenance with good patient compliance). Poor prognosis: 50% attachment loss, grade II furcation invasion (location and depth make maintenance possible but difficult). Questionable prognosis: >50% attachment loss, poor crown-to-root ratio, poor root form, grade II furcation invasion (location and depth  make  access  difficult)  or  grade  III  furcation  invasion; mobility no. 2 or no. 3; root proximity. Hopeless  prognosis:  Inadequate  attachment  to  maintain  health, comfort, and function. Ref: Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, thirteenth edition; page no 413
Dental
null
1bcc4893-9641-4f95-95c7-8c81492eb9a9
Which material undergoes hysteresis?
Irreversible hydrocolloid
Reversible hydrocolloid
Impression plaster
Metallic oxide paste
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
678018c2-3154-4411-937e-0e5d4116739f
Which of the following does not or permissive euchromatin due to changes occurring at cytosine residues at CpG islands in DNA?
Methylation
Alkylation
Phosphorylation
Sumoylation
0a
single
Ans: A. Methylationref: Harper's illustrated biochemistry, 30th editon., pg. 560.Methylation of cpG sites in the promoter of a gene may inhibit gene expression.There is also evidence that low folate status results in impaired methylation of cpG islands in DNA, which is a factor in the development of colorectal and other cancers.
Biochemistry
null
efbacdd9-1c25-4697-8ad9-377c7a8105b8
Boiled lobster syndrome is seen in poisoning of:
Boric acid
HNO,
H,SO4
Phenol
0a
single
Ans: A. Boric acid(Ref: Principles of Clinical Toxicology 3/e p221).Boiled lobster syndrome is seen in poisoning of Boric acid.Features:Major symptom is erythema, desquamation and exfoliation.The skin of the patient looks like a 'boiled lobster'.
Forensic Medicine
null
ff410d96-12d4-43ba-8b24-7bfbd8ad360c
Enzymes help by:
Lowering the activation energy
Increasing the substrate concentration
Decreasing the surface tension
Increasing the activation energy
0a
single
null
Biochemistry
null
acb04c70-4617-4968-9f93-ad46bc9fb8e8
Which acid is formed in the citric acid cycle?
Oxaloacetic acid
Glutamic acid
Nitric acid
None of the above
0a
multi
null
Biochemistry
null
8d6cd2e6-9912-4bb5-b276-289f11e6371f
The KRI paste is composed of:
Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and menthol
Iodoform and ZOE
Parachlorophenol, camphor and menthol
Calcium hydroxide and iodoform
0a
single
null
Dental
null
24662938-a2a7-4328-846d-1887c22ff54c
A patient was given ampicillin 2 g intravenously. After that, the person developed rash on skin, hypotension and difficulty in breathing. The patient should be managed by
0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intramuscular route
0.5 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by intravenous route
0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intramuscular route
0.5 ml of 1:10000 adrenaline by intravenous route
0a
single
Penicillins are prone to cause allergic reactions features like rash on skin, hypotension ,difficulty in breathing are suggestive of anaphylactic shock. Drugs Frequently causing allergic reactions Penicillins Aspirin Cephalosporins Indomethacin Sulfonamides Carbamazepine Tetracyclines Allopurinol Quinolones ACE inhibitors Metronidazole Methyldopa Abacavir Hydralazine Antitubercular drugs Local anaesthetics Phenothiazines In case of anaphylactic shock the resuscitation council of UK has recommended the following measure : * Put the patient in reclining position, administer oxygen at high flow rate and perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation if required.* Inject adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of I in I 000 solution for adult, 0.3 ml for child 6-12 years and 0.15 ml for child upto 6 years) i.m.; repeat every 5-10 min in case patient does not improve or improvement is transient. This is the only life saving measure. Adrenaline should not be injected i.v. (can itself be fatal) unless shock is immediately life threatening. If adrenaline is to be injected i. v., it should be diluted to 1:10,000 or 1:100,000 and infused slowly with constant monitoring. * Administer a H1 antihistaminic (pheniramine 20-40 mg or chlorpheniramine I 0-20 mg) i.m./slow i.v. It may have adjuvant value.* Intravenous glucocoicoid (hydrocoisone sod. succinate 200 mg) should be added in severe/recurrent cases. It acts slowly, but is specially valuable for prolonged reactions and in asthmatics. It may be followed by oral prednisolone for 3 days.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2019
13775adf-3c9f-46c4-9149-d0a382e24277
Which drug causes flagellate pigmentation of skin?
Bleomycin
Minocycline
Vincristine
Daunorubicin
0a
single
Ans: A. BleomycinRef: Goodman and Gilman, I3,h ed., pg. 1193Few case repos of bleomycin induced flagellate dermatitis and pigmentations are available in literature.
Pharmacology
null
1470a21a-b226-4cd1-904d-85cd841d5afa
True about bicuspidization:
Separation of mandibular molar mesial and distal roots with their respective crown portions
Separation or removal of half root with their respective crown portion in mandibular molar
Separation or removal of half root without their respective crown portion in mandibular molar
Separation or removal of half-crown without their respective root portion in mandibular molar
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
af87accb-34b2-42de-be48-16e94bbf22ab
In a cerebrohepatorenal syndrome, which of the following accumulate in brain?
Pyruvate
Sho-chain fatty acid
Very long-chain fatty acid
Acetyl CoA
2c
single
Zellweger syndrome Cerebro-Hepato-Renal Syndrome. Impaired neuronal migration, hypomyelination, hepatomegaly, renal cysts Autosomal recessive Rare Absence of Peroxisomes in almost all tissues, peroxisomes are responsible of oxidation of very long chain fatty acid which contain more than 22 carbon Accumulation of polyenic acids in brain, with carbon > 22 Severe neurological symptoms Most patients die within 1st year of life.
Biochemistry
AIIMS 2018
20f29076-98f9-479b-a77b-96fae28d5689
A 48 years old female presents with seizure, recurrent gross hematuria and left flank abdominal pain. Abdominal CT reveals left perinephric hematoma with 3 cm angiomyolipoma along with multiple right renal angiomyolipoma measuring 1.5 to 6.5 cm. What would be the most probable diagnosis?
VHL syndrome
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Tuberous sclerosis
Hereditary angiolipoma
2c
single
Answer- C (Tuberous sclerosis)Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) is a rare multisystem autosomal dominant genetic disease that causes non-cancerous tumours.A combination of symptoms may include seizures, intellectual disability, developmental delay, behavioral problems, skin abnormalities, lung disease, and kidney disease.Three types of brain tumours are associated with TSC:Giant cell astrocytomaCoical tubersSubependymal nodulesPeople with TSC are frequently also diagnosed psychiatric disorders: autism spectrum disorder (ASD), attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), anxiety disorder and depressive disorder.TSC patients have benign tumors of the kidneys called angiomyolipomas causing hematuria.
Surgery
null
71803632-1b88-4332-88f5-be3ac2515b85
Gene commonly indicated in congenital cataract:
PAX-6
CRYGS-3
LMX- IB
PITX-3
1b
single
Answer- B. CRYGS-3'Gene-S crystalline gene (CRYGS) mutalion causes dominant progressive coical cataract in humans.
Ophthalmology
null
93645af3-21d4-4a69-bd63-b181635715f4
The cause of bone destruction in juvenile periodontitis is:
Phagocytosis are reduced
Reduced neutrophilic chemotaxis
Decreased host resistance
Highly virulent microorganisms
1b
single
null
Dental
null
b02a2fb8-3cd5-4043-88fa-ab4ad3092efe
Inflammation of the periapical tissue is sustained by:
Stagnant tissue fluid
Necrotic tissue
Microorganisms
Pus cells
2c
single
Apical periodontitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder of periradicular tissues caused by aetiological agents of endodontic origin.  Persistent apical periodontitis occurs when root canal treatment of apical periodontitis has not adequately eliminated the intraradicular infection (microbes).
Dental
null
a05c8cf2-b0bc-496e-b5fd-51467952e2ca
A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal vaginal route which of the following statement is true?
Both mother and baby are safe
Give antiviral treatment to mother before delivery
Give antiviral treatment to baby
Baby will develop neoatal varicella syndrome
3d
multi
Varicella infection in pregnancy: If varicella infection occurs in a pregnant female during first half of pregnancy (M/C time of transmission-13 to 20 weeks) it results in congenital varicella syndrome in the fetus. Congenital varicella syndrome in characterized by chorioretinitis, microophthalmia, cerebral cortical atrophy, IUGR, hydronephrosis and skin or bone defects. Congenital varicella syndrome is an indication for doing MTP. Congenital defects rarely occurs if varicella infection occurs after 20 weeks. The terminology varicella embryopathy is not used these days. Neonatal varicella iin characterized by pneumonitis, hepatitis and DIC. The severity of neonatal infection is inversely related to the concentration of maternal antibodies present in the newborn circulation. Mother starts producing and transferring antibodies approximately 5 days after the onset of her disease.Thus, babies born 5 days or more from the beginning of maternal disease will be protected. Fernando Arias 3/e, p 156 Perinatal varicella exposure just before or during delivery poses a serious threat to newborns and so Varicella Ig should be given to all neonates of born to mothers who have clinical evidence of varicella 5 days before and upto 2 days after delivery. The use of VZIG decreases the chances of neonatal varicella and also modify the clinical course but it does not always prevent severe or fatal varicella. Expectant treatment with close observation, followed by prompt initiation of antiviral therapy on suspicion of neonatal varicella is recommended. Antiviral treatment (acyclovir) is given to neonates only if they develop neonatal varicella syndrome. Vaccine is not secreted in breast milk, so postpartum vaccination should not be delayed because of breast feeding.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
74af945a-56c6-4b18-935d-388c29f19a56
An 8–day old breast–fed baby presents with vomiting, poor feeding and loose stools. On examination the heart rate is 190/minute, blood pressure 50/30 mmHg, respiratory rate 72 breaths/minute and capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Investigations show hemoglobin level of 15 g/dl. Na 120 mEq/l, K 6.8 mEq/l, Cl 81 meq/l, bicarbonate 15 mEq/l, urea 30 mg/dl and creatinine 0.6 mg/dl. the most likely diagnosis is –
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Acute tubular necrosis
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Galactosemia
1b
single
Both the serum creatinine and serum urea are abnormal in this neonate. They may be normal for an adult, but for an 8 day old infant they are elevated. First the serum creatinine level   The serum creatinine level is high at birth reflecting the maternal value but it falls rapidly to 0.4 mg/dl by the end of the first week. According to Nelson, creatinine level in various age groups are Cord blood     ______ >      0.6 —1.2 mg/di New born _______ >       0.3 — 1.0 mg/dl Infant       ______ >                           0.2 - 0.4 mg/di Child       ______ >                           0.3 - 0.7 mg/di Adolescent ______ >       0.5 — 1.0 mg/di Do not get confused by the creatinine level of the newborn i.e., 0.3 — 1.0 mg/dl. This high level reflects the maternal value and it comes down to 0.2 to 0.4 mg/dl by 5th day So, Creatinine level of 0.6 mg/dl is abnormally high in an 8 day old infant. Now, the serum urea level The serum urea level in cord blood is 21-40 mg/dl, but it falls rapidly to 3-12 mg/dl by the 4th or 5th day. So urea level of 30 mg/dl is abnormally high in an 8 day old infant. According to Nelson Serum urea level in various age group Cord blood   ______ >                     21-40 ing/dl Premature      ______ >                    3-25 mg/dl Newborn   ______ >                         3-12 mg/dl Infant/child _____ >       5-18 ing/d1 Now, the capillary refill time Capillary refill time is also prolonged here (N ---> < 3 seconds) Prolonged capillary refill time indicates loss offluid and indicates shock, heart failure, Sympathetic stimulation In acute renal failure due to fluid loss cappillary refill time is increased All these findings plus characteristic h/o vomiting, poor feeding and loose stools confirms the diagnosis of acute renal failure (acute tubular necrosis) Electrolyte abnormalities in ARF --->             1) Hyponatremia,        2) Hyperkalemia,       3) Loss of Bicarbonate About other options In other three options serum urea and creatinine level will be normal.
Pediatrics
null
f955fff3-f4ec-41be-a119-a43e2024120e
False about innervation of parotid gland:
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibre secretomotor
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibre relay in Otic ganglion
Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve begin in inferior petrosal nucleus
Sympathetic nerve are vasomotor
2c
multi
Ans. C. Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve begin in inferior petrosal nucleusNerve supply:PARASYMPATHETIC:auriculo temporal nerveSYMPATHETIC SUPPLY- plexus around the external carotid aery.SENSORY NERVES: auriculotemporal nerve, except for parotid fascia & overlying skin which are innervated by Great auricular nerve (C2, C3).
Anatomy
null
fe55c8c7-c6ba-4882-a3c0-15171d62e603
Drug of choice for scrub typhus is:
Azithromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Chloramphenicol
2c
single
Scrub typhus is caused by rickettsia. DOC for rickettsia is Doxycycline(tetracycline). It is the DOC for all kind of typhus like endemic typhus, epidemic typhus, and other rickettsial infections like Q fever, rocky mountain spotted fever. Azithromycin is a macrolide and a protein synthesis inhibitor. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone. Chloramphenicol is also a protein synthesis inhibitor.
Pharmacology
AIIMS 2017
33a697bc-627a-4a24-b381-19c181fcdded
Method of choice for a New born child not passing urine for 36 hours :
Ultrasound of kidney & bladder
CT Scan
Cystoscopy
X–ray pelvis
0a
single
A history of Anuria suggests Acute Renal failure. Ultrasonography is the ideal imaging tool in Renal failure because of its non dependence on Renal function. As it allows visualization of : Pelvicalyceal system ofAssessment of Renal Size o Structural anomalies and calculi . Note - In this question DTPA scan has not been provided as an option. So, the best answer is USG.
Pediatrics
null
edb0ef61-a009-4fe9-811e-5b9d6ea40435
Chances of ankyloses of mandibular molar which is autotransplanted depends on?
Splinting of mandibular molar
Surgical extraction of molar
Socket preparation of molar for autotransplantation
Root kept moist in cotton
1b
single
null
Dental
null
cb19c2ac-3ade-4f32-9a3f-64f3d6efd517
Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?
Hyperpyrexia
Protuberant lips and frontal bossing
Defective or absence of sweat glands
Any of the above
3d
multi
Hyper pyrexia due to hypohidrosis, hypotrichosis, hypodontia, protuberant lips and depressed nasal and supraorbital bridges are important features of ectodermal dysphasia
Pathology
null
6a86faf5-cc79-438b-b82f-53839e1ce3ab
Which one of the following is the role of barrier membrane in GTR?
To help overall healing
Prevention of epithelial migration
To stop bleeding
To prevent the underlying tissues from the infection
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
37439d71-3558-4ceb-85af-8332c259afe1
A patient who is a known case of CKD has complaints of vomiting. His ABG repos are as follows: pH - 7.40, pCO2 - 40, HCO3 - 25. Na -145, chloride-100.
Normal anion gap met acidosis
High anion gap met acidosis
No acid base abnormality
High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
3d
single
Ans. D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis Even though ABG looks completely normal - clinical history is the key here.CKD patients generally have high AG metabolic acidosis. On the background of that he has developed vomiting (which is an alkalotic state). Both opposing disorders have normalized the ABG. But the patient is actually having a double disorder.
Medicine
null
16533187-64d0-47f9-be71-dba4d56615fe
A 1.5 kg child born at 32 weeks by LSCS presents with moderate respiratory difficulty (RR 70/ minutes). Which of the following is the appropriate management –
CPAP
Mechanical ventilation
Warm oxygen
Surfactant and ventilation
0a
single
Specific treatment for HMD is intratracheal surfactant therapy. This therapy requires endotracheal intubation, which also may be necessary to achieve adequate ventilation and oxygenation. Less premature infants (those > 1 kg or > 28-30 weeks gestation) and those with lower 02 requirements (Fi02 < 40 - 50%) may respond well to supplemental 02 alone or to treatment with nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Pediatrics
null
bf77a9c9-3c08-43fc-8159-8f8509238024
In genomic imprinting. DNA is modified by:
Acetylation
Methylation
Phosphorylation
Deamination
1b
single
Ans: B. Methylation(Ref Robbins 9/e p180, 8/e pl)Genomic imprinting:DNA modified by methylation.An epigenetic process resulting in differential inactivation of either maternal or paternal alleles of ceain genes.Mechanism:DNA methylation at CG nucleotide.Histone H4 deacetylation.Methylation.
Pathology
null
f2f90872-25be-4295-9e2c-26f8310a2100
In chronic renal failure : a) Urine output is more than 3 litres per dayb) Urine concentration is decreasedc) Sodium conservation is poord) Polycythemia is present
a
c
bc
ad
2c
single
null
Pediatrics
null
8be32dbe-9a46-4a8a-8c08-ff89c3e78c3d
Fetal adrenals release which hormone predominantly:March 2009, September 2010
Oestrogen
Testosterone
Aldosterone
Coisone
3d
single
Ans. D: CoisoneFetal adrenals shows hyperophy of the reticular zone (fetal zone), which is the site of synthesis of oestriol precursor, coisol and dehydroepiandrosterone.After 12 weeks of gestation, the activity of 3 p-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (HSD3B) decreases in fetal adrenal and sulfokinase activity increases.At that time (during the mid-gestation, 12 to 22 weeks) the major steroid products are DHEA and DHEA Sulfate (DHEA-S).During the mid-gestation (12 to 22 weeks), the aromatase activity and sulfokinase activity increases. So Placenta itself utilizes fetal DHEA and DHEA-S as substrate for estrone and estradiol as precursors.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
84fe7359-1ad3-4031-bf62-e4474bb33a86
All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except –
Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
Single S2
Loud P2
Graham steel murmur
0a
multi
Eisenmenger syndrome refers to patients with a VSD in which blood is shunted from right to left as a result of development of pulmonary vascular resistance. Initially shunt is from left to right as the systemic vascular pressure is greater than pulmonary vascular pressure. With time pulmonary vascular resistance increases due to change in pulmonary vessel wall as a result of increased flow in pulmonary vessels. When pulmonary vascular pressure exceeds the systemic vascular resistance, reversal of shunt into right to left shunt occurs. This development of right to left shunt due to reversal of left to right shunt as a result of development of pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary hypertension is called Eisenmenger syndrome.
Pediatrics
null
01c50678-d06f-4894-b7b7-0562a413164e
Polishing of composite is problematic due to
Soft matrix and hard filler particles
Hard filler particles
Hardness of matrix and filler particles
None of the above
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
4d8af4ad-1f62-4bb8-a485-439992b3af49
Determining level of fluoride in community water fluoridation programme depends on:
Mean annual temperature of the place
Economic factors
Average weight of children of the area
Altitude of area above sea level
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
7c6fe266-845b-4f4b-8ddb-ca5d016e0396
Key indicator for AFP surveillance ?.
At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 1000 population of under 5 years
At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 5 year
At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 1000 population of under 15 years
At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 15 years
3d
single
Ans.d) At least one case of non-polio AFP per year per 100000 population of under 15 years The number of AFP cases repoed each year is used as an indicator of a country's ability to detect polio, even in countries where the disease no longer occurs. Polio surveillance It is the most impoant pa of whole polio eradication intiative. It has two components:?Acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillanceAcute flaccid paralysis is defined as acute onset (< 4 weeks) of flaccid paralysis (reduced tone) without other obvious cause in children WHO recommends the immediate repoing and investigation of every case of AFP in children less than 15 years.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ce3daa75-37fc-41ba-b0ea-80182c3f9e5b
Post-auricular ecchymosis in cases of fracture of the base of the skull is called:
Battle's sign
Tinel's sign
Trousseau's sign
Nikolsky's sign
0a
multi
null
Surgery
null
30b2fee8-1ce3-4f84-ad72-f20e7b53a24b
The best way to remove a hydrocolloid impression from the patient's mouth is:
Slight rocking of the impression to disengage it from the undercut
Wetting the periphery of the impression with moist cotton to break the peripheral seal
Sudden jerking of the impression to prevent tearing
Supporting the impression along with the tray to prevent disengaging of the tray alone
2c
single
Since alginate is a viscoelastic material, its tear strength is increased when the impression is removed along a vertical path with a snap. The speed of removal must be a compromise between a  rapid movement and a slower rate that is more comfortable for the patient. Usually an alginate impression does not adhere to the oral tissues as well as some of the elastomers do, so it is easier to remove the alginate impression rapidly. However, it is always best to avoid torquing or twisting the impression in an effort to remove it quickly. Specifically, the handle should be used minimally during breaking of the air seal (“suction”) or removal of the tray from the teeth. Phillips dental materials 12th edition page no 174
Dental
null
5951aa74-d30c-4c33-b1e6-dd5e5d103ca0
Maximum amount of phosphate is seen in
Bone
Enamel
Gingiva
Dentine
1b
single
null
Dental
null
4719558d-09ca-4c85-9bf8-454e80a138aa
The treatment of choice for stage-I cancer larynx is:
Radical surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Surgery followed by radiotherapy
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
2b368176-2ef0-4871-8ae4-b1daae990f34
Accessory canals are most numerous in apical third, which one is 2nd numerous in this regard
Middle Third
Coronal Third
Both are equal
None of the above
1b
multi
Apical third has accessory canals: 74% of cases Coronal 3rd have accessory canals: 15% of cases Middle third has accessory canals: 11% of cases
Dental
null
7e567a6e-46f6-4f48-bd14-21e53726f1ff
Replacing amino acid will not change its functions
Glutamine to Asparagine
Aspaate and Glutamate
Alanine to tryptophan
None of these
0a
multi
Answer- A. Glutamine to Asparagine* Glutamine and Asparagine are Amide group containing amino acids.* These belongs to same category (hydrophilic /Homophilic) so no alteration in function
Biochemistry
null
ff42704e-3996-4abe-a5b6-574344e7aaf0
Which of the following is not an etiological factor for pancreatitis?
Abdominal trauma
Hyperlipidemia
Islet cell hyperplasia
Germline mutations in the cationic trypsinogen gene
2c
single
Ans. c. Islet cell hyperplasiaGallstones including microlithiasis (MC). Alcohol (2"d MC). Hyperiglyceridemia. ERCPO. Blunt abdominal trauma
Surgery
null
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